This deal comes from my fertile source, the South Florida IMP game. My long-time bridge partner, David Berkowitz called me and asked what I would do with this hand (vulnerable against not):

AJ10762
KQ65
J54
--His LHO opened 1NT (15-17) and RHO bid 3, game-forcing with both minors. I told him it is not my style to play the hero. LHO might have KQ9x and good hearts and I could go for 1400. Okay, you pass (timidly) and LHO bids 5 which comes back to you. My answer this time: "You know that if I passed the first time, I still pass. So would you." David is a conservative player. But, he told me that even though he passed the first time he balanced with 5! His logic made sense: LHO didn't try for 3NT. Likely he had nothing in the majors--if he had both majors he would have bid 3NT. With one decent major, he might have bid it, looking for 3NT. Based on this logic, our partner should have good cards in the majors (and short diamonds, to boot).

5 was passed around to RHO who bid 6. David passed this around to his partner who now came in herself with 6. This was doubled and passed around again to David's partner who retreated to 6. This was the unusual (has anyone seen such a thing before?) auction:

West	North	East	South
1NT	Pass	3*	Pass
5	Pass	Pass	5!
Pass	Pass	6	Pass
Pass	6	Double	Pass
Pass	6	Double	Pass
Pass	Pass

K83 A10872 2 9654

AJ10762 KQ65 J54 --

A high diamond was led, followed by a club shift. Now what? Assuming the Q was with the notrump opener, David ran the J at trick 3. Why didn't he play the A first? Because he needed to not only take the spade finesse, but trump a diamond in dummy. The J held (RHO playing the 9). A diamond ruff in dummy was followed by the K. David came to hand to play the A and take 12 tricks (6 spades, 5 hearts and a ruff in dummy)--plus 1660.

This was the Real Deal:

Vul:N-S Dlr: West	K83 A10872 2 9654
Q54 J9 KQ108 AQJ3		9 43 A9763 K10872
	AJ10762 KQ65 J54 --

At the other table, West opened 1 and South eventually played in 5 double, making 5.