Results for Set 6

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#1) East deals, neither side vulnerable

A K Q Q 9 8 5 4 10 9 8 4 2

10 8 7 2 A K 5 3 A Q 10 8 5

Scores for Board 1:

3:10
4:9
5: 7
2NT: 6
3NT: 3

What should East open? My preference is 1 so that I am prepared to bid 2 next (lying slightly about the minor-suit lengths). The alternative of opening 1 and telling some other lie with my rebid is less appealing. After 1-1-2, I expect West would bid 2NT and East would pass or raise to 3NT. After a 1-1 start, I suppose East would lie with 2 or 1NT. None of these auctions seem headed towards diamonds. Yes, it could start: 1-1-2-3. No game is good, thus the scoring as shown.

#2) West deals, neither side vulnerable

A K 4 K A K 8 7 6 Q 9 8 3

J 5 2 A J 10 9 5 3 Q J 10 2 --

Deal 2 Scores:

7:10
6: 8
6: 5
5: 3
5: 2
3NT: 2
7: 1

After 1-1, I suspect most Wests would choose 2NT. No, this usually doesn't contain a singleton, but at least the singleton is the king and in partner's suit. The 2NT rebid gets the 19 HCP off opener's chest and feels more descriptive than a huge underbid of 2 (or misleading 3). After 2NT, East can bid 3, forcing. West can bid 3 (where he lives) and East might bid only 4 next. Still, West should head towards slam with his great red-suit cards. He will rightfully be concerned about a club control. Maybe it goes: 1-1-2N-3-3-4-4-5... that leads to at least a small slam. Kudos to any pair who reached 7. Nobody said these deals were easy.

#3) East deals, North-South Vulnerable, South bids 3

A Q A J 10 9 J 10 8 10 8 7 6

5 K Q 4 A K 9 6 2 A Q 4 2

Deal 3 Scores:

6NT: 10
6: 8
6: 7
6: 5
5NT: 5
5: 4
5: 3
7: 2
5: 1

Assuming 2 spade tricks (likely), 6NT requires declarer to win either a diamond or club finesse for 12 tricks (at least 75%, probably more on the auction). Other slams are also decent propositions. After 1 (3), I think it is more practical for West to try 3NT as opposed to a negative double. East now has many options: Pass, 4, 4NT (Quantitative), or 5NT (Pick-a-Slam). Since Pass and 5NT are at opposite extremes, I like the middle courses (4 or 4NT). West might upgrade his great spots and treat the AQ as AK to accept an invitation.

#4) South opens 1, Both vulnerable, North bids 3 (weak)

A Q 5 A 6 4 Q A K J 10 9 4

10 6 4 3 2 K 7 3 2 9 6 5 3

Board 4 Scores:

4: 10
3: 8
4: 7
5: 5
Slams: 1

After South's 1, West is too strong to overcall 2, so he should double. The preemptive 3 comes back to West, who should double again. East might bid only 3 and buy it there. He could make a bigger bid (maybe 4) which could lead to 5 (which needs a fair amount of luck). No game is great--and nothing is clear. So, why is this deal included? It comes (as do most of these) from the Becker Archives--maybe Mr. Becker knows something I don't know.

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